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               promulgate! Although we may never know for sure, the explanation for the apparent contradiction
               in Mark 16 and Luke 23 can be quite simple. Let's view these verses --

                       That day was the Preparation, and the Sabbath drew near. And the women who had come
                       with Him from Galilee followed after, and they observed the tomb and how His body was
                       laid. Then they returned and PREPARED SPICES and fragrant oils. And they RESTED
                       ON THE SABBATH according to the commandment (Luke 23:54-56).


                       Now when the Sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of Jesus, and
                       Salome BOUGHT SPICES, that they might come and anoint Him (Mark 16:1).

                       Obviously, in Luke 23, the women already had some spices on hand so they were able to
               start preparing them BEFORE the weekly Sabbath began at sunset. However, they realized they
               didn't have enough spices on hand to complete the preparation, so "when the Sabbath was past"
               they went out and purchased some more to complete the job. Nice and straight-forward -- no need
               to twist and distort the passages to mean something they clearly do not!

                       Now let's tackle the question of the "two Sabbaths" which, in principle, Armstrong has
               right! While it is true that the Sabbath in Matthew 28:1 is in the PLURAL, the proponents of the
               "3-day and 3-night" theory totally overlook the fact that the apostle John reveals that there were
               TWO SABBATHS ON ONE DAY -- the weekly Sabbath AND the first high day of the Feast of
               Unleavened Bread!


                       That the day after Christ's death was a weekly Sabbath can be clearly demonstrated by
               Luke 23:56, which reads: "On SHABBAT the women rested, IN OBEDIENCE TO THE COM-
               MANDMENT." What "commandment" is this? The FOURTH COMMANDMENT of course! In
               reference to this verse the Jewish New Testament Commentary makes this clarifying statement: "It
               is sometimes claimed that the New Testament says nothing about keeping the fourth commandment.
               This verse contradicts that claim, so it is important for a Jewish understanding of the New Testa-
               ment. ON SHABBAT THE WOMEN RESTED, IN OBEDIENCE TO THE FOURTH COM-
               MANDMENT (Exodus 20:8-11, Deuteronomy 5:12-15; also Exodus 16). Of course they did! They
               observed Shabbat EVERY WEEK" (David H. Stern, p. 150). Obviously the WEEKLY SABBATH
               is the focus of verses 54 and 56.


                       Now, having established the weekly Sabbath is the focus of these verses, let's go to John
               19:31 in the Jewish New Testament and read what the apostle John has to say: "It was the
               Preparation Day, and the Judeans did not want the bodies to remain on the stake on SHABBAT,
               since it was an especially important Shabbat." The New King James version makes it clearer:
               "Therefore, because it was the Preparation Day, that the bodies should not remain on the cross on
               the [weekly] Sabbath (FOR THAT [WEEKLY] SABBATH WAS A HIGH DAY)." What "high
               day" was this? My Bible references it to Exodus 12:16 -- the first day of the Feast of Unleavened
               Bread! Now consider this -- if that day had been a regular week day, John would have said "FOR
               THAT DAY WAS A HIGH DAY." But he says "for that SABBATH was a high day"!

                       The fact that the weekly Sabbath day here mentioned was also the first high holy day of the
               Feast of Unleavened Bread, is understood by numerous researchers. Writes Samuele Bacchiocchi,



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